I have three questions and truly appreciate any help that can be offered:
For background, I was diagnosed with hypogonadism in early June. I do not have erectile issues or low libido, but I do have pretty significant (chronic) fatigue as well as anxiety and depression (for which I am taking Celexa since the TRT isn't helping)...
Question One: Since using Angrogel 1.62% for a month or so, shouldn't I have higher total and free testosterone levels than before I first started using it?
Question Two: Is it a problem that my "% free testosterone" is now outside of (slightly higher than) LABCORPS reference range for the percentage (it was normal before I started taking the Androgel 1.62%)?
Question Three: Since my numbers were still low under Angrogel 1.62%, my doc switched me to Fortesta. What confuses me is that with the Androgel 1.62% I was taking 4 pumps (81mg total of testosterone) but my doc has me taking 4 pumps of Fortesta 2% which is only 40mg of testosterone. Is the difference between a 2% solution and a 1.62% solution so significant that taking 40mg less testosterone will still give me higher serum/total levels? It seems to me that if I cut my testosterone mg by 40mg, even if I am using a 2% solution, I am not getting nearly as much total testosterone as I was with Androgel 1.62% - when I asked my doc, I was told (via voicemail) "Fortesta is more concentrated."
If it helps, my test results are as follows:
Before Androgel 1.62% TRT:
171 (early June), 241 (late June), 200 (early Sept.)
7.9 (late June), 8.14 (early Sept.)
% Free testosterone
3.27% (late June), 4.07% (early September)
6.5 (late June), 4.2 (early Sept.)
3 (late June), 2.5 (early Sept.)
16.1 (June) and 7.4 (Sept)
After a month or so on Androgel 1.62% TRT:
164 (Early Nov. - lower than before TRT)
7.53 (Early Nov. - lower than before TRT)
% Free testosterone
4.59% (Early Nov. - this exceeds LABCORPS ref range).
Thanks in advance for any assistance.